In English, we don’t really need to think about this. Our the’s and an’s are always the’s and an’s. But in Spanish, the’s and an’s always follow a masculine or feminine tense. “las zanahorias” and “el perro” are a few examples. But if someone claimed that they fit under neither tense, what is it that they would alter? Would it just go under masculine, would they be referred to as something like “la hombre”, or would the language just be reworked to fit it?
Discuss
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In Mandarin you have three pronouns — 他 (he/him), 他 (she/her) and 它 (it) — but all three are pronounced the same: "tā". When speaking it wouldn't matter. When writing it's not uncommon to use the masculine form (他) when the gender is unspecified. For example: 我們有新老闆,你聽說嗎?[b][u]他[/u][/b]今天下午要來。 Did you hear? We have a new boss. [b][u]He/she[/u][/b] will come this afternoon. The same is true of "you" (nǐ = 你 [m], 妳 [f]) as well as the plural of "you" (你們 [nǐ men]) or "they/them" (他們 [tā men]) if a group is mixed or otherwise non-specific. In other Chinese dialects I know they use the same characters but I'm not sure if the three pronouns share the same pronunciation. I know they do in Hokkien and think they do in Cantonese as well. I would assume it's the same across most if not all dialects.